Re: Is infinity equal to infinity?

Larry Jones <larry.jones@sdrc.com>
20 Jul 1998 16:55:53 -0400

          From comp.compilers

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Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? bear@sonic.net (Ray Dillinger) (1998-07-11)
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Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? henry@spsystems.net (1998-07-13)
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Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? darcy@usul.CS.Berkeley.EDU (1998-07-20)
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Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? dwcantrell@aol.com (1998-07-24)
| List of all articles for this month |

From: Larry Jones <larry.jones@sdrc.com>
Newsgroups: sci.math.num-analysis,comp.lang.c,sci.math,comp.compilers
Date: 20 Jul 1998 16:55:53 -0400
Organization: SDRC Worldwide Services
Distribution: inet
References: 98-07-058 98-07-114
Keywords: arithmetic

Henry Spencer wrote:
>
> So, what about Inf:Inf (that is, infinity compared to infinity)? The
> paper explains this, as per the standard's terse wording, as the limit of
> f(x):g(x), as x approaches some limit that makes both f(x) and g(x) go to
> infinity. Just what is the limit of f(x):g(x)? Depending on what f(x)
> and g(x) are, it could be "less than", "equal", or "greater than". So
> there is no single limit... and that means the result of Inf:Inf must be
> "unordered".


I don't know, Henry, 5.7 strongly implies that "unordered" only applies
when at least one of the operands is a NaN. As far as I know, everyone
agrees that same-signed infinities *are* to compare equal.


-Larry Jones
--


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