Mon, 01 Feb 2010 14:58:42 +0200

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[7 later articles] |

From: | Chariton Karamitas <chakaram@auth.gr> |

Newsgroups: | comp.compilers |

Date: | Mon, 01 Feb 2010 14:58:42 +0200 |

Organization: | Compilers Central |

Keywords: | LL(1), theory |

Posted-Date: | 01 Feb 2010 18:26:27 EST |

Hello,

I don't think your assumption that any LL(k) can be transformed into

an LL(k-1) is correct. The 'k' in LL(k) is assumed to be the supremum

of lookahead symbols that you need in order to parse your input. So,

suppose you have an LL(2) grammar, then you cannot convert it to an

LL(1) since the LL(1) equivalent won't have disjoint FIRST/FOLLOW sets!

I am not yet very experienced when it comes to compilers, so, if my

answer is wrong correct me please! :-)

Regards

./ck

--

Chariton Karamitas

Undergraduate Student

Electrical Engineering and Computer Engineering Department

Fuculty of Engineering

Aristotle University of Thessaloniki, Greece

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